'From Jesus' statements I make an inference and form a corollary: the whole Old Testament bears witness to Christ; and, the Old Testament does not bear witness only to Christ. Why this corollary? Because I agree with making an extensive inference from Luke 24:27 and 44 but hold that an intensive inference is illegitimate. What on earth does that mean? It means I think Jesus is teaching that all parts of the Old Testament testify of the Messiah in his suffering and glory, but I do not think Jesus is saying that every Old Testamnet passage/text bears witness to him. Jesus referred to the things written about him in the law of Moses, the prophets, and the psalms - he did not say that every passage spoke of him (v.44). Therefore, I do not feel compelled to make every Old Testament (narrative) passage point to Christ in some way because I do not think Christ himself requires it.
Not every Old Testament exposition then must end up speaking directly of Christ, because (1) Jesus does not demand it, and, in addition, (2) such a regimen impoverishes Old Testament exposition. How would the latter happen? Well, if Old Testament exposition must in some way speak of Christ and if the textual theology of an Old Testament passage does not (seem to) do so, will that not be eliminated as unworthy exposition?'
Dale Ralph Davis, The Word became Fresh: How to preach from Old Testament narrative texts, p.134.
